ICWIM NEW BRAINDUMPS EBOOK & ICWIM CLEAR EXAM

ICWIM New Braindumps Ebook & ICWIM Clear Exam

ICWIM New Braindumps Ebook & ICWIM Clear Exam

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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q168-Q173):

NEW QUESTION # 168
Tax relief that prevents overseas profits from being taxed twice is called:

  • A. Double Taxation Relief
  • B. Overseas Taxation Relief
  • C. Double Taxation Agreement
  • D. Dividend Taxation Relief

Answer: A

Explanation:
Double Taxation Relief (DTR) ensures that income earned in a foreign country is not taxed twice-once in the country where the income is earned and again in the investor's home country.
* How It Works:
* If an investor pays foreign tax on overseas income, they can offset that tax liability against their domestic tax bill.
* The UK has Double Taxation Agreements (DTAs) with multiple countries to prevent double taxation on dividends, interest, and capital gains.
* Example:
* A UK investor receives £10,000 in dividends from US stocks and is charged a 15% withholding tax in the US.
* Under a UK-US tax treaty, the investor receives a tax credit for the amount paid in the US, reducing UK tax liability.
# Reference: HMRC Double Taxation Agreements, CISI Wealth & Investment Management.


NEW QUESTION # 169
Why would an investment manager conduct forward-looking security attribution?

  • A. To establish where future risks lie
  • B. To quantify next year's annual charge
  • C. In order to calculate future profits
  • D. In order to establish by how much they need to outperform the benchmark

Answer: A

Explanation:
Forward-looking security attribution focuses on identifying potential future risks in a portfolio by analyzing market trends, economic indicators, and security performance forecasts.
* Why is Option B Correct?
* Investment managers use quantitative models and stress testing to identify upcoming risks.
* Helps in adjusting asset allocation and implementing hedging strategies.
* Why Not Other Options?
* A (Calculate future profits) # Attribution focuses on performance breakdown, not profit forecasting.
* C (Quantify annual charge) # Fees are predetermined and not part of attribution analysis.
* D (Outperform benchmark) # Attribution measures risk sources, not outperformance targets.
# Reference: CFA Institute (Performance Attribution), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.


NEW QUESTION # 170
Which of the following forms part of the Financial Planning Standards Board's six-step process for financial planning?

  • A. Challenge client's risk appetite
  • B. Analyse client's financial status
  • C. Organise client's financial affairs
  • D. Minimise client's tax burden

Answer: B

Explanation:
# Reference: FPSB Global Financial Planning Standards.


NEW QUESTION # 171
Performance attribution analysis attempts to explain why a portfolio had a certain return. It does so by breaking down the performance and attributing the results based on the decisions made by the fund manager on which of the following?

  • A. The combination of asset allocation, sector choice, and security selection
  • B. Asset allocation and sector choice only
  • C. The combination of asset allocation, sector choice, security selection, and risk analysis
  • D. Asset allocation alone

Answer: A

Explanation:
Performance attribution analysis evaluates the performance of a portfolio by breaking it into components attributed to specific investment decisions. These include:
* Asset Allocation: The decision on the proportion of the portfolio allocated to different asset classes (e.
g., stocks, bonds).
* Sector Choice: Selecting specific sectors (e.g., technology, healthcare) within asset classes.
* Security Selection: Choosing individual securities within the selected sectors.
Risk analysis, while critical for investment management, is not typically part of standard performance attribution frameworks.
References:
* International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Portfolio performance evaluation section.
* Standard attribution models: Brinson, Hood, and Beebower model widely used in performance attribution.


NEW QUESTION # 172
Which one of the following would cause a shift to the right in aggregate demand?

  • A. Depreciation of the pound against other currencies
  • B. A decrease in expected inflation
  • C. A decrease in consumer confidence
  • D. An increase in expected inflation

Answer: A

Explanation:
* Factors Shifting Aggregate Demand (AD) Rightward:
* Depreciation of the pound makes UK exports cheaper and imports more expensive, increasing net exports.
* Higher net exports increase aggregate demand, shifting the curve to the right.
* Elimination of Other Options:
* A: Lower consumer confidence decreases consumption, shifting AD leftward.
* B: Increased expected inflation may reduce real spending.
* D: Lower expected inflation discourages spending.
References:
* ICWIM Module 1: Macroeconomic factors influencing aggregate demand.


NEW QUESTION # 173
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